Last term the small group I attend looked at the topic of spiritual gifts.
As we were talking about the gift of tongues, I wasn’t so sure where I stood about Jesus speaking in tongues.
Of course, as someone with the Holy Spirit within them, and being God incarnate, Jesus could have spoken in tongues - no matter which definition you use (be they a completely unknown language or a tongue you previously didn’t know).
The query that Jesus spoke in tongues hung with me for a few days and the internet was less than helpful.
Often, the responses would included references to places like Mark 8:12, where Jesus just groans.
I’m not sure this counts...
But, I think the answer lies in the previous chapter - Mark 7:34.
For, if Jesus is God incarnate then, surely, His “mother language” is a heavenly one.
Thus, a “foreign” language would be any one He spoke on earth.
So, while I suggest that Jesus did speak in tongues, they would be in the form of “ordinary” language, which could be understood by those around Him, not the inverse - a heavenly language which could be used to communicate with God.
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